Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 03.07.2025 04:34
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's the most trivial thing that ever made you go to the doctor?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Can you tell me a depressing story?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.